State Bank Of India (SBI) Clerk Exam On 03.06.2012 2nd sitting : Reasoning Solved Question Paper And Answers Paper

1-5. Each of the questions given below is based on the given diagram. The diagram shows three figures each representing Scientists, Government employees and employees of Company X.

1. Which of the following represent all such Scientists who are Government employees but are not employed in Company X?
(a) Only C
(b) C and G
(c) G, C and F
(d) C and F
(e) Only F

2. Which of the following represents such employees of company X who are also Government employees but are not Scientists?
(a) D and G
(b) Only D
(c) G and F
(d) Only A
(e) None of these

3. Which of the following groups represents all such Government employees who are not Scientists?
(a) A, B and D
(b) B and F
(c) Only A
(d) B and D
(e) A and C

4. Which of the following does the group C represent in the above diagram?
(a) All such employees of Company X who are also Scientists as well as Government employees
(b) All such Government employees who are Scientists as well as employees of Company X
(c) All such employees of Company X who are Scientists but are not Government employees
(d) All such Scientists who are neither Government employees nor employed with Company X
(e) All such Government employees who are also employed with Company X

5. Which of the following groups represents all such Scientists who are Governments employees as well as employed with Company X?
(a) Only A
(b) F and G
(c) Only G
(d) Only B
(e) Not represented in the diagram

6-10. Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:

6 5 1 8 2 4 9 4 5 2 6 1 7 3 2 9 4 2 3 6 7 9 2 5 8 3 1 4 5 1 2 8 3 5

6. If all the even digits are deleted from the above arrangement, which of the following will be eleventh from the right end of the arrangement?
(a) 9
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 5
(e) 7

7. How many such 4s are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded as well as immediately followed by an odd digit?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Tow
(d) Three
(e) More than three

8. How many such 1s are three in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded or immediately followed by a perfect square?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

9. How many 3s are three in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a digit which has a numerical value of less than three?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

10. Which of the following is fifth to be right to the sixteenth digit from the right end of the above arrangement?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these

11-15. Following questions are based on five words given below:

MET ARK MOB SKI URN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words)

11. In the second alphabet in each of the words is changed to the previous alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having no vowels will be formed?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Tow
(d) Three
(e) Four

12. If in each of the words, all the alphabets are arranged in English alphabetical order within the word, how many words will begin with a vowel?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

13. If the given words the arrangement in order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right?
(a) MET
(b) RK
(c) MOB
(d) SKI
(e) URN

14. If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

15. How many letter s are there in the English alphabetical series between third letter of the word which is fourth from the left and the third letter of the word which is fourth from the right of the given words?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) Five

16-20. In each question below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two/three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion follows.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
Give answer (5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follows.

16. Statements : No toffee is coffee. No sweet is toffee.
Conclusions : I. No coffee is sweet.
II. Al sweets are coffee.

17. Statements : All medals are awards. All rewards are medals.
Conclusions : I. All rewards are awards
II. All awards are medals

18. Statements : Some trees are plants. All bushes are plants.
Conclusions : I. Atleast some trees are bushes
II. Some trees are definitely not bushes

19. Statements : All bottles are glasses. No cup is a glass.
Conclusions : I. No bottle is a cup
II. Atleast some glasses are bottles

20. Statements : All windows are doors. All entrances are windows. No gate is a door.
Conclusions : I. Atleast some windows are gates
II. No gate is an entrance

21. In a certain code PAUSE is written as OBVTD and SHIFT is written as RIJGS. How will THINK be written in the same code?
(a) UGHML
(b) SIJOJ
(c) SILOJ
(d) SIJQJ
(e) SIJOL

22. Ajay walked 2m towards east, took a right turn and walked 7m. He then took a left turn and walked 5m before taking a left turn and walking 7m. He then took a final right turn and walked 1m before stopping. How far is Ajay from the starting point?
(a) 8m (b) 7m
(c) 6m (d) 5m
(e) 9m

23-25. Stud the following information to answer the given questions:

Amongst five friends, P, Q, R, S and T, each scored different marks in an examination out of a total of 100 marks. S scored more than only T. R scored less than P. only one person scored more than Q. The one who scored second highest marks scored 87 marks.

23. Who scored the third least marks in the examination?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S
(e) T

24. Which of the following is true with regard to the given information?
(a) Only one person scored more than P
(b) No one scored less than T
(c) R scored more than both Q and S
(d) Amongst the five friends, S is most likely to have scored 95 marks in the examination
(e) None is true

25. If S scored 23 marks less than the marks scored by Q, which of the following could possibly be R's score?
(a) 64
(b) 93
(c) 61
(d) 89
(e) 78

26-30. Study the following information to answer the given questions:

Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing for people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1-A, B,C and D are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all them are facing south. In row 2-E, F, G and H are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. G sits second to right of E. The one who faces E sits to the immediate right of C. A faces the immediate neighbour of E. H sits to immediate left of the person who faces D. H does not sit at n extreme end of the line.

26. Who amongst the following faces A?
(a) E
(b) F
(c) G
(d) H
(e) Cannot be determined

27. Who amongst the following faces the person who sits exactly between G and E?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) Cannot be determined

28. Who amongst the following faces G?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) Cannot be determined

29. Which of the following is true regarding B?
(a) B sits exactly between C and D
(b) D sits second to right of B
(c) B sits at an extreme end of the line
(d) B is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces F
(e) None is true

30. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus from a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that groups?
(a) E
(b) D
(c) F
(d) G
(e) A

31-35. In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequences were continued?

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State Bank Of India (SBI) Clerk Exam On 03.06.2012 2nd sitting : Numerical Ability (Quantitative Aptitude) Solved Questions Paper and Answers Paper

1-5. What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

1. (47)² – (15)² = ?
(a) 1894
(b) 1849
(c) 1949
(d) 1984
(e) None of these

2. 81% of 4915 = ?
(a) 3819.15
(b) 3871.15
(c) 3981.15
(d) 3918.15
(e) None of these

3. 25 × 43 ÷ 5 = ?
(a) 215
(b) 220
(c) 205
(d) 251
(e) None of these

4. 93 + 26 × 3 – 51 = ?
(a) 201
(b) 102
(c) 120
(d) 210
(e) None of these

5. 1682 ÷ 45 × ? = 377
(a) 13
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 14
(e) None of these

6. 2.8 + 28.8 + 2.88 + 0.2 + 0.28 = ?
(a) 44.96
(b) 33.96
(c) 43.96
(d) 34.96
(e) None of these

7. 63 × 9 × 14 ÷ ? = 98
(a) 83
(b) 86
(c) 88
(d) 91
(e) None of these

8. 11.7 × 4.1 – 5.97 = ?
(a) 48
(b) 42
(c) 46
(d) 39
(e) None of these

9. √844 + 729
(a) 758
(b) 763
(c) 741
(d) 751
(e) None of these

10. 7¹⁄₃ + 5⁴⁄₉ - 4⁴⁄₉  = ?
(a) 8⁴⁄₇ (b) 8¹⁄₃
(c) 8⁶⁄₇ (d) 8²⁄₃
(e) None of these

11. √8649
(a) 89
(b) 97
(c) 93
(d) 91
(e) 99

12. 24% of 6730 = ?
(a) 1615.2
(b) 1619.4
(c) 1613.8
(d) 1617.2
(e) None of these

13. 6³⁄₈ + 3²⁄₇  + 9⁷⁄₈  = ?
(a) 19¹³⁄₂₈ (b) 15¹⁹⁄₁₈
(c) 19¹⁵⁄₂₈ (d) 15¹³⁄₂₈
(e) None of these

14.
(a) 3199
(b) 3168
(c) 3189
(d) 3188
(e) None of these

15. 2850 ÷ ? = 75
(a) 31
(b) 34
(c) 39
(d) 37
(e) None of these

16-20. Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The graph represent the total number of tickets sold of five plays P, Q, R, S and T, across two auditoriums A and B on a particular day

16. The number of tickets sold of play T at auditorium A is what percent of the number of tickets of play P sold at auditorium A?
(a) 220
(b) 200
(c) 210
(d) 190
(e) 180

17. What is the total number tickets of plays Q and R together at both the auditoriums A and B together?
(a) 1050
(b) 1200
(c) 1250
(d) 1350
(e) 1300

18. What is the respective ratio of the number of tickets sold of play P at auditorium B to the number of tickets sold of play Q at auditorium B?
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 4
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 3 : 5
(e) 4 : 5

19. What is the difference between the total number of tickets sold of all plays together at auditorium A and the total number of tickets sold for all plays together at auditorium B?
(a) 180
(b) 170
(c) 150
(d) 160
(e) 140

20. What is the average number of tickets sold at auditorium B for play T and S together?
(a) 360
(b) 320
(c) 300
(d) 340
(e) 350

21. If the area of a rectangle is 1248 square meters and its breadth is 32 meters how much is its perimeter?
(a) 142 meters
(b) 128 meters
(c) 148 meters
(d) 124 meters
(e) None of these

22. The cost price of an article is Rs. 7950/-. If it is to be sold at a profit of 18%, how much would be its selling price?
(a) Rs. 9431/-
(b) Rs. 9183/-
(c) Rs. 9218/-
(d) Rs. 9381/-
(e) None of these

23. 24 articles were bought for Rs. 14880 and sold for Rs. 18480. How much was the approximate profit percentage per article?
(a) 32%
(b) 29%
(c) 17%
(d) 20%
(e) 24%

24. What will be the compound interest on a sum of Rs. 7200/- at 5 p.c.p.a. in 2 years?
(a) Rs. 841
(b) Rs. 738
(c) Rs. 793
(d) Rs. 812
(e) Rs. 694

25. The ratio of the ages of A and B is 4 : 3 respectively. The ratio of their ages eight years from now will be 6 : 5 respectively. How old was A, when B was 7 years old?
(a) 16 years
(b) 11 years
(c) 9 years
(d) 12 years
(e) None of these

26. What will be the average of the following set of scores?
48, 47, 64, 91, 72, 68, 93
(a) 65
(b) 69
(c) 72
(d) 61
(e) 75

27. In how many different ways can the letters of the 'PARTY' be arranged?
(a) 120
(b) 2005
(c) 2400
(d) 720
(e) None of these

28. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 1434. What is the largest number?
(a) 488
(b) 484
(c) 476
(d) 472
(e) None of these

29. The circumference of a circle is 748 meters. What will be its radius?
(a) 113 meters
(b) 107 meters
(c) 116 meters
(d) 109 meters
(e) None of these

30. Cost of 68 pens and 96 pencils is Rs. 788/-. What is the cost of 17 pens and 24 pencils?
(a) Rs. 193/-
(b) Rs. 189/-
(c) Rs. 197/-
(d) Rs. 183/-
(e) None of these

31-33. Study the information given below and answer the question that follow:
An article was bought for Rs. 5200/-. It price was marked up by 15%. Thereafter it was sold at a discount of 9% on the marked price.

31. What was the amount of discount given?
(a) Rs. 528.20
(b) Rs. 519.20
(c) Rs. 533.20
(d) Rs. 538.20
(e) Rs. 529.20

32. What was the marked price of the article?
(a) Rs. 5480/-
(b) Rs. 5880/-
(c) Rs. 5990/-
(d) Rs. 5790/-
(e) Rs. 5980/-

33. What was the percent profit earned on the transaction?
(a) 4.85%
(b) 4.65%
(c) 4.35%
(d) 4.45%
(e) 4.25%

34. A and B together can complete a particular task in 4 days. If A alone can complete the same task in 12 days, how many days will B take to complete the task if he works alone?
(a) 9 days
(b) 7 days
(c) 5 days
(d) 3 days
(e) None of these

35-39. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

35. ? 7800 1560 390 130 65
(a) 47120
(b) 49900
(c) 46800
(d) 48350
(e) None of these

36. 7 11 19 ? 67 131
(a) 35
(b) 23
(c) 46
(d) 51
(e) None of these

37. 5 10 25 70 205 ?
(a) 650
(b) 370
(c) 550
(d) 610
(e) None of these

38. 7 35 210 ? 6300 31500
(a) 1040
(b) 1360
(c) 1080
(d) 1030
(e) None of these

39. 513 495 ? 462 447 433
(a) 460
(b) 491
(c) 488
(d) 478
(e) None of these

40. In how many years will Rs. 4400 amount to Rs. 5984 at 4 p.c.p.a. simple interest?
(a) 9
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 7
(e) None of these

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State Bank Of India (SBI) Clerk Exam On 03.06.2012 2nd sitting : Computer Knowledge/ Marketing Aptitude Solved Questions Paper and Answers Paper

1. Marketing of Services is adopted in ___________
(a) Grocery stores
(b) Garment trade
(c) Medicine shops
(d) Fruit stall
(e) Hotels

2. Selling is ________
(a) Same as marketing
(b) More than Marketing
(c) Offering discounts
(d) A sub-function of marketing
(e) Nothing to do with marketing

3. Indirect marketing is the same as ________
(a) Onsite selling
(b) Using a smart-phone
(c) Viral marketing
(d) Advertisements
(e) Online marketing

4. Benchmark means _______
(a) A Standard value for comparison
(b) Basic products
(c) Court cases
(d) Financial targets
(e) Sales person’s targets

5. A Call in marketing terms means ________
(a) A newly introduced product
(b) Territory allocation for sales persons
(c) A Call Centre
(d) A sales meeting
(e) To visit a Prospect

6. A Cold Call means _______
(a) A futile exercise
(b) Calls made in cold countries
(c) Sales talk
(d) Old product with new wrapping
(e) Calls made without prior appointment

7. A Lead means _______
(a) ATM usage
(b) Products offering
(c) Document sales
(d) A likely buyer
(e) A type of credit card

8. ‘To Close a Call’ means _______
(a) To look for new clients
(b) Telemarketing
(c) To clinch the sales deal
(d) Online marketing
(e) Indoor marketing

9. Delivery channels means ________
(a) Place from where the products are sold
(b) Courier service
(c) Distribution agencies
(d) Delivery time
(e) Offsite banking

10. Market size also means ______
(a) Market planning
(b) Market pricing
(c) Market space
(d) Market distribution
(e) Market channels

11. A fall in the market share implies ________
(a) Sales have gone up
(b) Profit has gone up
(c) Prices are erratic
(d) Competition has increased
(e) Business is would up

12. Market share can be increased by increasing ______
(a) Raw material cost
(b) The staff strength
(c) The sales
(d) The sales staff
(e) Competition

13. More number of conversions indicates ________
(a) More sales
(b) More purchases
(c) More staff
(d) More products
(e) More technological progress

14. Financial Inclusion means __________
(a) Financial statements
(b) Financial data
(c) Wholesale Banking
(d) Retail Banking
(e) Bringing all poor people under banking net

15. Find the correct sentence _________
(a) KYC norms are not applicable for Financial Inclusion
(b) Loans can be granted to students at low rate of interest
(c) Home loans are not useful for public
(d) NRI customers are not profitable customers
(e) Online marketing is very costly

16. Margin contribution in the case of a loan account means _________
(a) Money paid by bank to borrower
(b) Same as EMI
(c) Borrower’s own contribution for the venture
(d) Stamp duty
(e) Registration charges

17. Mutual Fund business from existing bank customers can be mobilized by _______
(a) Online marketing
(b) Cross-selling
(c) Telemarketing
(d) Carpet bombing
(e) Road-shows

18. Digital Marketing is the same as__________
(a) Online marketing
(b) Cross-selling
(c) Website designing
(d) Road-shows
(e) Door-to-door marketing

19. “Load” means _______
(a) Log of wood
(b) Free charged when one buys or sells the units of a fund
(c) Share price at the time of buying
(d) Stamp duty
(e) Fund value

20. In a Savings Account, money can be deposited on ________
(a) Monthly basis
(b) As per the convenience of the depositor
(c) Annual basis
(d) In one lump sum
(e) Quarterly basis

21. The input device to be used to get a printed diagram into a computer is the _______
(a) Printer
(b) Mouse
(c) Keyboard
(d) Touchpad
(e) Scanner

22. What type of device is a computer mouse?
(a) Storage
(b) Output
(c) Software
(d) Input
(e) Input / Output

23. Any component of the computer you can see and touch_______
(a) Software
(b) Peripheral
(c) Storage
(d) CPU
(e) Hardware

24. What is the value of the binary number 101?
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 101
(e) 9

25. Data or information used to run the computer is called _______
(a) Software
(b) Hardware
(c) Peripheral
(d) CPU
(e) None of these

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State Bank Of India (SBI) Clerk Exam On 03.06.2012 2nd sitting : General English Solved Questions Paper and Answers Paper

1-15. Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Certain words/phrase have been in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the question.

The men of Suvarnanagari were very lazy. The only liked to gossip and tell each other tall tales. As soon as the sun rose, the men would tuck into a hearty breakfast and then gather in groups for their daily session of gossiping. They should spend the rest of the day telling each other impossible stories. They came back home only at lunch and dinner time. The farmlands of Suvarnanagari were very fertile. If the men had spend even a little time at the fields, they would have reaped wonderful crops. But as they did nothing, all the responsibilities ended up on the shoulders of the women. They had to work hard the whole day. The cooked, cleaned, sent the children to school, worked in the fields, took that the men needed to be taught a lesson. One of them suggested that they write to the king about their problem, as he was known to be a just a kind person. So the letter was written and sent to the king. The women went back to their daily routines hoping that the king would soon take some action. Many would the king of such a vast empire be concerned about the plight of the women of such a tiny village?’ they thought. A month passed by and it was a full moon night. The men ate their dinners and because it was so beautiful and well lit outside, they gathered again to chat and boast. That night they Soon a tall and handsome stranger joined them. Seeing his noble features and intelligent eyes, each one wanted to prove himself better than the others and impress him. One said, “I knew the map of this trouble bringing me back home! Everyone was impressed by this story. Soon another man said, “So all the way to the king’s places. He received me with a lot of love and we had the most delicious meal together.” This was even more impressive so everyone applauded. Now a third man said, “Huh ! That is nothing. I sat on an elephant when I was a week old and had lunch with the king in his palace.” Before the admiring numbers could die down, a fourth man said, “When I was a month old, I flew like a bird and landed in the king’s garden. The king picked me up and even let me sit on his throne with him”. While everyone was in awe of these stories, the stranger spoke up, “Do all four of you know the king very well” “Of course we do !” they replied together. “Our king knows and loves us. In fact he is proud “That makes my task so much easier. You see, I work in the king’s court. Some days ago the king had summoned four supermen to the city in order to repair a large hole in the city wall. As you know, we use only the largest and the toughest stones for building these walls, and they could be lifted and put in place only be these supermen. The four supermen asked to be paid in gold bars and the king complied. But the night they received their fee, they disappeared from the place. I have been wandering around ever since looking for them. The king has ordered me to find the four men and bring them back to the capital to finish the work. They will also have to return the gold bars they ran away with. It looks like the search has finally ended. I will take the four of you to the king along with the gold bars. The king will be very pleased with me and will surely reward me, “said the stranger. By the time the stranger finished his story the four men realized that their lies had landed them into a huge trouble. Their faces turned ashen and they divided at the stranger’s feet. “Save us !” they pleaded. “Those were all lies. We are all just a bunch of lazy men. But if you forgive us and forget our stories we promise to do some honest work and stop telling such lies,” they wailed. The stranger smaller and said, “Alright, I will tell the king that there are no supreme in this village, just honest and hardworking men and women.” That night the stranger left the village. The women were sure that it was none other than the king himself.

1. How did the men of Suvarnanagari spend their days?
(a) They helped in repairing the kingdom’s walls
(b) They worked in the fields and at the market
(c) They only ate, gossiped and told each other tall tales
(d) They searched for the supermen
(e) They spoke about their experience

2. What did the women of Suvarnanagari decide?
(a) That they would complain to the king about the lazy men
(b) That they would write a letter to the village headman
(c) That they would stop working in the fields
(d) That they would stop sending the children to school
(e) That they would start gossiping like the men

3. Why did the women of Suvarnanagari start losing hope?
(a) Because there was no improvement in the men’s behavior despite the king’s intervention
(b) Because many days had passed and the king had not acted on their complaint
(c) Because they could not earn much despite working hard all day in the field
(d) Because the king always favoured the men of Suvarnanagari
(e) Because they were losing their importance after the men had started working

4. What did the second man boast about?
(a) That he knew the way to the palace even before being born
(b) That he was stronger than all the other supermen in that village
(c) That the flew to the king’s palace a week after he was born
(d) That he rode an elephant after he was born and had lunch with the king
(e) That he rode a horse a day after he was born and had a meal with the king

5. Why were the four supermen summoned by the king as told by the stranger?
(a) To make sure that the men of Suvarnanagari were working in the fields
(b) To rob the gold bars from Suvarnanagari
(c) To help the women of Suvarnanagari in their daily chores
(d) To make sure that the children of Suvarnanagari went to school
(e) To fix the hole in the city wall with strong and big stones

6. Why did the four men start waiting?
(a) They realized that there were other supermen in the kingdom
(b) They realized that the king was upset about their laziness
(c) They realized that they were being unfair to the women
(d) They realized that their lies had landed them in trouble
(e) They realized that the stranger was the king

7. What did the four men promise to do?
(a) They promised that they would stop lying and start working hard
(b) They promised that they would repair the city wall
(c) They promised that they would return the gold bars, the king gave them
(d) They promised that they would help the stranger look for the four supermen
(e) They promised that they would gossip only about true stories

8. Arrange the following incidents in a chronological order as they occurred in the passage.
(1) The second man was boasting about his powers
(2) The women of Suvarnanagari were unhappy
(3) The stranger left the village
(4) The stranger said that he would take the four men to the king
(a) 1432
(b) 2413
(c) 1243
(d) 2134
(e) 2143

9. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
(a) The women of Suvarnanagari gossiped
(b) The women thought that the stranger was the king himself
(c) The second man said that he could fly when he was a week old
(d) The stranger said that the city wall was destroyed by the four supermen
(e) None is true

10. Which of the following may be an appropriate title to the passage?
(a) The fertile farms of Suvarnanagari
(b) The man who could fly
(c) The lazy men of Suvarnanagari
(d) The foolish women of Suvarnanagari
(e) The city walls of Suvarnanagari

11-13. Choose the word/groups of words which is most similar in the meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. Tuck into
(a) Eat
(b) Fit into
(c) Sleep
(d) Wear
(e) Place on

12. Plight
(a) Troubles
(b) Lives
(c) Routine
(d) Fights
(e) Arguments

13. Received
(a) Obtained
(b) Welcomed
(c) Collected
(d) Found
(e) Got

14-15. Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. Die down
(a) Stop
(b) Decrease
(c) Kill
(d) Start
(e) Create

15. Compiled
(a) Accepted
(b) Agreed
(c) Declined
(d) Decided
(e) Disobeyed

16-20. Each sentence below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Chosen the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

16. They ________ changed a few criterion in ______ recruitment process.
(a) has – our
(b) have – their
(c) can – a
(d) had – an
(e) may – company

17. They had ______ the venue for the party a month _______
(a) found – soon
(b) saw – earlier
(c) looked – later
(d) selected – easily
(e) booked – in advance

18 She is one of the _______ interior decorators _______ the city.
(a) best – in
(b) most – of
(c) better – for
(d) good – by
(e) more – on

19. Please ______ sure that you attach the photocopies _______ not the original documents
(a) be – also
(b) in – but
(c) so – only
(d) as – just
(e) make – and

20. _____ his parents moved to another city, he _____ to stay in this city.
(a) Despite - still
(b) Though – continues
(c) Inspire of – wants
(d) No sooner – waits
(e) Later – remains

21-25. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No Error’ the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation if any).

21. She informed that (1) / she will visiting her (2) / aunt at the (3) / hospital the next day. (4) / No Error (5)

22. Each participant are (1) / expected to be present (2) / at least an hour (3) / before the competition. (4) / No error (5)

23. The king praised (1) / the minister and (2) / rewarded him with (3) / a thousand gold coins. (4) No error (5)

24. She had request (1) / me to looked (2) / her garden while (3) / she was away. (4) / No error

25. The farmer was (1) / in need of money (2) / so he went (3) / at the money-lender. (4) / No error (5)

26-30. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful land correct? If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (5) as the answer.

26. Barring the few, all the customers are defaulters.
(a) Barred a few
(b) Leave a few
(c) Barring a less
(d) Barring a few
(e) No correction required

27. The cooks up a story in order to get out of the situation.
(a) cooked in a story
(b) cooked up a story
(c) cooked up a stories
(d) cooked on the story
(e) No correction required

28. She likes to be in all goods books of others.
(a) one the good books
(b) in the books
(c) in the goo books
(d) in the good bookings
(e) No correction required

29. The actor has been keeping lower profile for some time now.
(a) lowering the profile
(b) profile low
(c) a lowest profile
(d) a low profile
(e) No correction required

30. Thought everyone was tired, Rahul was hell bend on playing another game.
(a) bending hell on
(b) hell bent in
(c) hell bent on
(d) hell bent for
(e) No correction required

31-40. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage, against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The ‘Fool of the Year’ contest was (31) to all the countries of king Krishnadeva Raya. All of them looked forward to the event as the winner would (32) a handsome prize of 5000 gold coins. The trouble was that Raman (33) won the contest. One year the other courtiers decided that he must be kept out of it and (34) his servant to lock him in his room to prevent him from reaching the palace in time for the event. Consequently, Raman reached the place (35) the contest was over. Just as the (36) of the winner was about to be announced the king noticed Raman. Seeing him come in, the king asked him why he was so late. Raman told him he was in need of a hundred gold coins and had been engaged in trying (37) to the amount.
“If you had participated in the contest you might have won the prize money and your problem would have been solved,” said the king. “You’ve behaved very foolishly, Raman.” Sir that means I am a fool,” said Raman. “You’re the greatest fool I’ve ever seen !” said the king. “In that case all the other here are (38) than me. That means I have won the contest !” said Raman. The king realized that he had (39) a slip but he was too proud to acknowledge it. To the chagrin of the other countries, the king (40) Raman the winner of the ‘Fool of the Year’ contest!

31. (a) closed
(b) easy
(c) open
(d) lost
(e) winning

32. (a) find
(b) give
(c) see
(d) receive
(e) show

33. (a) never
(b) tried
(c) totally
(d) easy
(e) always

34. (a) bribed
(b) ask
(c) complained
(d) raised
(e) confessed

35. (a) later
(b) soon
(c) after
(d) completely
(e) not

36. (a) face
(b) contest
(c) contestant
(d) name
(e) age

37. (a) look
(b) collects
(c) finding
(d) counting
(e) raise

38. (a) foolish
(b) happier
(c) wiser
(d) sad
(e) taller

39. (a) fallen
(b) showed
(c) found
(d) made
(e) created

40. (a) declared
(b) announce
(c) said
(d) told
(e) called

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State Bank Of India (SBI) Clerk Exam On 03.06.2012 2nd sitting : General Awareness Solved Questions Paper and Answers Paper

1. Which of the following countries has agreed to accept the payment of export of oil and petroleum products to India, in rupee terms instead of dollar or any other currency?
(a) Kuwait
(b) UAE
(c) Iran
(d) Iraq
(e) Libya

2. As per the news paper reports Govt. of India has finally agreed to purchase advanced MRMRs for its naval forces. What are these MRMRs?
(a) Aircrafts
(b) Warships
(c) Submarines
(d) Radar Systems
(e) Rocket Launchers

3. Which of the following agencies/organizations decided to cancel 122 Licenses of 2G Spectrum issued by the Govt. of India to various companies and asked the Govt. to do the process afresh?
(a) Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
(b) Supreme Court of India
(c) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)
(d) Conference of Indian Industry (CII)
(e) Reserve Bank of India

4. Who among the following is the Prime Minister of a country at present and has also won the Presidential Elections held in March 2012? (He had been president of the country twice in the past. This will be his third term as president. He will join office in July 2012).
(a) Mohammed Waheed Hassan (Maldives)
(b) Add – Rabba Mansour Hadi (Yeman)
(c) Daniel Ortega (Nicaragua)
(d) Vladimir Putin (Russia)
(e) None of these

5. Which of the following countries approved a new constitution of the country in a referendum through secret voting held in February 2012?
(a) Libya
(b) Iraq
(c) Iran
(d) UAE
(e) Syria

6. Which of the following has signed a 'Non-Aggression Pact' with Sudan?
(a) Uganda
(b) Kenya
(c) Ethiopia
(d) South Africa
(e) South Sudan

7. General Clients of various banks in India can made a complaint to which of the following offices, on the issues related to deficiency in services which do not get resolved at banks' level?
(a) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Ombudsman
(d) Indian Audit Bureau
(e) Indian Bank's Association

8. The sensitive index of National Stock Exchange of India is popularly known as _______
(a) SENSEX
(b) CRIS
(c) CSE
(d) MCX
(e) Nifty

9. Which of the following Indians was conferred the prestigious "National Medal of Arts and Humanities", awarded by US President in February 2012?
(a) Dr. Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(b) Ms. Meria Kumar
(c) Dr. Amariyan Sen
(d) Dr. D Subbarao
(e) Shri N.R. Narayan Murthy

10. Who among the following Indian was conferred the prestigious "National Medal of Arts and Humanities", awarded by US President in February 2012?
(a) Dr. Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(b) Ms. Meria Kumar
(c) Dr. Amariyan Sen
(d) Dr. D Subbarao
(e) Shri N.R. Narayan Murthy

11. The proceeds from disinvestment of various public sector undertakings are channelized into_____
(a) Technology Upgradation Fund
(b) Venture Capital Fund (NABARD)
(c) Rural Innovation Fund (NABARD)
(d) Portfolio Risk Fund (SIDBI)
(e) National Investment Fund

12. 'World Day for Water' is observed on which of the following dates?
(a) 22nd August
(b) 22nd July
(c) 22nd October
(d) 22nd March
(e) 22nd April

13. As per new data released recently what was GDP's real growth rate? (approximately)
(a) 7%
(b) 8%
(c) 9%
(d) 10%
(e) 15%

14. Meryl Streep who was awarded one of the Oscar Awards 2012, is a famous ______
(a) Film Director
(b) Actress
(c) Song writer
(d) Screen play writer
(e) Costume Designer

15. Which of the following counties has announced to freeze its Nuclear Programme so that it can avail food aid from US and other countries?
(a) North Korea
(b) South Korea
(c) Iran
(d) India
(e) Pakistan

16. Which of the following organizations has agreed to give a financial and of US $ 4.3 billion to India to help it in eliminating poverty?
(a) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(b) World Bank
(c) Bank of Tokyo & HSBC Jointly
(d) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(e) IMF & ADB Jointly

17. What is the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) at present?
(a) 20%
(b) 22%
(c) 25%
(d) 24%
(e) None of these

18. Which of the following is one of the major functions of National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)?
(a) Provide loans to State Govt. for developing rural infrastructure
(b) Preparing Monetary & Credit Policy of India
(c) Deciding Bank Rate
(d) Providing Credit to Small Industrial Units
(e) Monitoring and Controlling functions of the Stock exchanges in India

19. India conducted a joint naval coast guard exercise Sahyog-Kaijin-XI with _______
(a) China
(b) Myanmar
(c) Thailand
(d) Japan
(e) Bangladesh

20. Which of the following teams won the Africa Cup Football Championship Final held in

February 2012?
(a) Kenya
(b) Zambia
(c) South Africa
(d) Ivory Coast
(e) Ghana

21. Agnieszka Radwanska of Poland recently won an international sports/games Championship. She is a famous_______
(a) Chess player
(b) Golf player
(c) Lawn Tennis player
(d) Table Tennis player
(e) Badminton player

22. Which of the following films was adjudged 'Best picture' in 84th "Oscar Award" function held in February 2012?
(a) The Help
(b) The Iron Lady
(c) The Artist
(d) The Girl with the Dragon Tattoo
(e) Midnight in Paris

23. What does the letter S denote in the abbreviation 'SEBI' which is the same of a regular in financial sector in India?
(a) Small
(b) State
(c) Special
(d) Statutory
(e) Securities

24. Mr. Sauli Niinisto is the present President of ________
(a) Yemen
(b) Maldives
(c) China
(d) Finland
(e) S. Korea

25. A tax levied on the values that eh added to goods and services by the producers at various stages of production and distribution is called ______
(a) Excise duty
(b) Value Added Tax
(c) Goods & Service Tax
(d) Surcharge
(e) Income Tax

26. Which of the following combinations of authors and the books written by her/him is NOT correct?
(a) A tale of Two Gardens – Octavio Paz
(b) A suitable Boy – Vikram Seth
(c) Area of Darkness – V. S. Naipaul
(d) Malguid Days – R. K. Narayan
(e) A house for Mr. Biswas - Kiran Desai

27. Which of the following terms is used in the game of cricket?
(a) Punch
(b) Deuce
(c) Trump
(d) Leg Bye
(e) Dribble

28. Which of the following cups/trophies is NOT associated with the game of Lawn Tennis?
(a) Davis Cup
(b) Merdeka Cup
(c) Wimbledon
(d) ATP Open
(e) Dubai open

29. Which of the following terms is used in the field of Banking & Finance?
(a) Double Fault
(b) Hit Wicket
(c) Atomic Number
(d) Dividend
(e) Grand Slam

30. Which of the following is the currency used in South Korea?
(a) Euro
(b) Krone
(c) Dinar
(d) Pound
(e) Won

31. Which of the following awards by the Govt. of Madhya Pradesh for excellence in the field of classical Music?
(a) Tansen Award
(b) Saraswati Samman
(c) Mangla Prasad Paritoshik
(d) Arjun Awards
(e) Dronacharya Award

32. Who among the following is a famous Cricket player and represent his country in international matches?
(a) Kane Williamson
(b) Jbe Kruger
(c) Marcel Siem
(d) Saurav Ghosal
(e) Rahul Aware

33. Which of the following is NOT a name of a newspaper published in India?
(a) Danik Jagran
(b) The Statesman
(c) The Tribune
(d) Rajasthan Patrika
(e) South Zone

34. Which of the following cities in India is known as Electronic city of India?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Kolkata
(c) Bangalore
(d) Hyderabad
(e) New Delhi

35. Mr. Yang Jiechi who was on a visit to India in March 2012 is the ________
(a) Home Minister of Japan
(b) Foreign minister of Chaina
(c) Foreign minister of Japan
(d) Home Minister of Chaina
(e) Home Minister of Nepal

36. Which of the following awards is given by the Govt. of India?
(a) Kalidas Samman
(b) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
(c) Kalinga Award
(d) Sarswati Samman
(e) Kabeer Samman

37. Which of the following terms is NOT used in the field of Biology?
(a) DNA
(b) RNA
(c) GST
(d) Osmosis
(e) Homeostatis

38. Which of the following places in India is famous for its woolen carpets?
(a) Satara
(b) Bhadohi
(c) Nagpur
(d) Ambala
(e) Bhagalpur

39. The second Green Revolution planned for North Eastern states is based on production of which of the following crops?
(a) Paddy
(b) Wheat
(c) Banana
(d) Pulses
(e) Vegetables

40. Which of the following schemes was launched by the Govt. of India of school Children?
(a) Mid Day Meal
(b) MGNREGA
(c) RAY
(d) Look East
(e) Swavlamban




Answers : 
1 (C) 2 (A) 3 (B) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6 (D) 7 (C) 8 (E) 9 (C) 10 (C) 
11 (E) 12 (D) 13 (A) 14 (B) 15 (A) 16 (B) 17 (D) 18 (D) 19 (B) 20 (B) 
21 (C) 22 (C) 23 (E) 24 (D) 25 (B) 26 (E) 27 (D) 28 (B) 29 (D) 30 (E) 
31 (C) 32 (A) 33 (E) 34 (C) 35 (B) 36 (B) 37 (C) 38 (B) 39 (A) 40 (A)

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State Bank Of India (SBI) Clerk Exam On 2011: Computer Knowledge / Marketing Aptitude Solved Questions Paper And Answers Paper

1. An email account includes a storage area, often called a(n) __
(1) attachment
(2) hyperlink
(3) mailbox
(4) IP address
(5) None of these

2. Data becomes __ when it is presented in a format that people can understand and use.
(1) processed
(2) graphs
(3) information
(4) presentation
(5) None of these

3. A set of computer programs that helps a computer monitor itself and function more efficiently is __
(1) Windows
(2) System Software
(3) DBMS
(4) Application Software
(5) None of these

4. An area of a computer that temporarily holds data waiting to be processed is __
(1) CPU
(2) Memory
(3) Storage
(4) File
(5) None of these

5. A __ is a microprocessor-based computing device.
(1) personal computer
(2) mainframe
(3) workstation
(4) server
(5) None of these

6. You use a(n) __ , such as a keyboard or mouse, to input information.
(1) output device
(2) input device
(3) storage device
(4) processing device
(5) None of these

7. The term __ designates equipment that might be added to a computer system to enhance its functionality.
(1) digital device
(2) system add-on
(3) disk pack
(4) peripheral device
(5) None of these

8. The instructions that tell a computer how to carry out the processing tasks are referred to as computer __
(1) programs
(2) processors
(3) input devices
(4) memory modules
(5) None of these

9. RAM can be thought of as the __ for the computer's processor.
(1) factory
(2) operating room
(3) waiting room
(4) planning room
(5) None of these

10. C, BASIC, COBOL, and Java are examples of __ languages.
(1) low-level
(2) computer
(3) system programming
(4) high-level
(5) None of these

11. __ is the ability of a device to "jump" directly to the requested data.
(1) Sequential access
(2) Random access
(3) Quick access
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these

12. The __ is the amount of data that a storage device can move from the storage medium to the Computer per second.
(1) data migration rate
(2) data digitizing rate
(3) data transfer rate
(4) data access rate
(5) None of these

13. A __ converts all the statements in a program in a single batch and the resulting collection of instructions is placed in a new file.
(1) converter
(2) compiler
(3) interpreter
(4) instruction
(5) None of these

14. One thousand bytes is a __
(1) kilobyte
(2) megabyte
(3) gigabyte
(4) terabyte
(5) None of these

15. 'Benchmark' means __
(1) Benches for customers to sit
(2) Benches for salesmen to sit
(3) Products displayed on a bench
(4) Set standards
(5) All of the above

16 A Call Centre is __
(1) a meeting place for DSAs
(2) a Training Centre for DSAs
(3) a meeting place for customers
(4) Data Centre
(5) a back office set up where customer queries are answered

17. The sequence of a sales process is __
(1) Lead generation, Call, Presentation & Sale
(2) Sale, Presentation, Lead generation & Call
(3) Presentation, Lead generation, Sale & Call
(4) Lead Generation, Call, Sale & Presentation
(5) There is no sequence required

18. Home loans are granted to ___
(1) Individuals
(2) Institutions
(3) Builders
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

19. To 'Close a Call' means __
(1) 'fo end the conversation
(2) To put the phone down
(3) To close the doors
(4) To clinch the sale
(5) To close the business

20. A __ is an additional set of commands that the computer displays after you make a selection from the main menu.
(1) dialog box
(2) submenu
(3) menu selection
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these

21. Information kept about a file includes ________
(1) print settings
(2) deletion date
(3) (1) & (2) only
(4) size
(5) None of these

22. __ provides process and memory management services that allow two or more tasks, jobs, or programs to run simultaneously.
(1) Multitasking
(2) Multithreading
(3) Multiprocessing
(4) Multicomputing
(5) None of these

23. The ALU performs __ operations.
(1) arithmetic
(2) ASCII
(3) algorithm-based
(4) logarithm-based
(5) None of these

24. A (n) __ is software that helps a computer control itself to operate efficiently and keep track of data.
(1) application system
(2) hardware system
(3) software system
(4) operating system
(5) None of these

25. 'Customization' means __
(1) Tailor-made products for each customer
(2) Customers selling goods
(3) Tailor-made products for each staff
(4) A selling process
(5) None of these

26. A 'Call' in Marketing language means __
(1) Calling On a salesperson
(2) Calling on a customer
(3) Making a phone-call
(4) Telemarketing
(5) None of these

27. Computers manipulate data in many ways, and this
manipulation is called __
(1) upgrading
(2) processing
(3) batching
(4) utilizing
(5) None of these

28. A Marketing Survey is required for __
(1) deciding marketing strategies
(2) deciding Product strategies
(3) deciding pricing strategies
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

29. The Target Group for Education Loans is —-
(1) all colleges
(2) all parents
(3) research scholars
(4) meritorious students seeking higher education
(5) all of these

30. Cross-selling means __
(1) Selling with a cross face
(2) Cross country marketing
(3) Selling other products to existing customers
(4) Selling to friends
(5) Selling to employees

31. Market Segmentation is useful for—
(1) Preferential marketing
(2) Targeting existing clients
(3) Identifying prospects
(4) Knowing customers' tastes
(5) All of the above

32. The Target Group for Savings Deposit Accounts is __
(1) Newborn babies
(2) students
(3) parents
(4) businessman
(5) all of the above

33. Market Segmentation can be resorted to by means of __
(1) segmenting by age
(2) segmenting by income
(3) segmenting geographically
(4) all of these
(5) none of these

34. The Target Group for a Car Loan is —
(1) all auto drivers
(2) all auto dealers
(3) all car owners
(4) any individual needing a car
(5) all of these

35. Market information means —
(1) knowledge of industries
(2) knowledge of households
(3) knowledge of peers
(4) knowledge of customers' tastes
(5) All of these

36. Credit cards are used for -
(1) Cash withdrawals
(2) Purchase of air tickets
(3) Purchase of consumable items from retail outlets
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

37. The Target Group for Agricultural Loans is __
(1) any farmer
(2) farm laborers
(3) any individual dealing in agricultural or related activity
(4) farmers' societies
(5) all of these

38. The Target Group for Credit Cards is —-
(1) existing cardholders
(2) all graduates
(3) all minors
(4) individuals with taxable income
(5) all of these

39. Market Segmentation means __
(1) segmenting the salesmen
(2) segmenting the employees
(3) segmenting the customers as per their Heeds
(4) segmenting the products
(5) All of these

40. A 'Target Group' means—
(1) a group of sellers
(2) a group of buyers
(3) a group of products
(4) a group of persons to whom sales should be focused
(5) all of these





Answers :
(1) 3 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 2 (5) 1 (6) 2 (7) 4 (8) 1 (9) 3 (10) 4 
(11) 2 (12) 3 (13) 2 (14) 1 (15) 4 (16) 5 (17) 1 (18) 1 (19) 4 (20) 1 
(21) 3 (22) 1 (23) 1 (24) 4 (25) 1 (26) 2 (27) 2 (28) 4 (29) 4 (30) 3 
(31) 5 (32) 5 (33) 4 (34) 4 (35) 5 (36) 4 (37) 3 (38) 4 (39) 3 (40) 5

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Bank of Maharashtra Clerk Exam : Numerical Ability (Quantitative Aptitude) Solved Question Paper And Answer Paper

1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?
(a) 30 minutes
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 28 minutes
(d) 34 minutes

2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?
(a) 4096
(b) 8192
(c) 512
(d) 1024

3. Find the number missing at question mark:
10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149
(a) 100
(b) 103
(c) 78
(d) 128

4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from 'Trivandrum' and reaches 'Attingal' in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance?
(a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes

5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure?
(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6

6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18

7. One fourth percent of 180 is:
(a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45

8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150

9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14

10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?
(a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17

11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is .
(a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400

12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?
(a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210

13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?
(a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50

14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?
(a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds

15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be .
(a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds

16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?
(a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40

17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6

18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers
(a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050

19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:
(a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m

20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2

21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ..
(a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3
(c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution

22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?
(a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2

23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?
(a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15%

24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5

25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM
(a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400

26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in
(a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes
(c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes

27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
(a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes

28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:
(a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300

29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?
(a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days

30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?
(a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27

31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?
(a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 %

32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:
(a) 7,200m² (b) 15,000m² (c) 54,000m² (d) 13,500m²

33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0

34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450

35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the
(a) Interior of the triangle
(b) Midpoint of the diameter
(c) Exterior of the triangle
(d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle

36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?
(a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180

37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?
(a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre

38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is 'r' what is its slant height?
(a) 3r (b) 4r (c) 5r (d) 3r

39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?
(a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6

40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3?2, 6, 6?2 ?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) ?2 (d) ?3

41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45

42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?
(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr

43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?
(a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32

44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.
(a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm

45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54,
(a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57

46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:
(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30

47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21

48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30
(a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750

49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?
(a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510

50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:
(a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31





Answers:
1 A 2 B 3 A 4 B 5 C 6 B 7 C 8 D 9 C 10 B 
11 B 12 A 13 D 14 D 15 A 16 C 17 D 18 A 19 C 20 B 
21 C 22 B 23 A 24 C 25 B 26 A 27 B 28 D 29 C 30 B 
31 D 32 D 33 B 34 D 35 C 36 D 37 B 38 C 39 C 40 C 
41 A 42 A 43 B 44 C 45 A 46 C 47 B 48 D 49 B 50 B 

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Andhra Bank Clerk Exam On 05.07.2009 : English Solved Question Paper and Answer Paper

Directions (Q. 1 - 8) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

A new analysis has determined that the threat of global warming can still be greatly diminished if nations cut emissions of heat-trapping greenhouse gases by 70% this century. The analysis was done by scientists at the National Center for Atmospheric Research (NCAR). While global temperatures would rise, the most dangerous potential aspects of climate change, including massive losses of Arctic sea ice and permafrost and significant sea-level rise, could be partially avoided.

This research indicates that we can no longer avoid significant warming during this century, said NCAR scientist Warren Washington, the study paper's lead author. But, if the world were to implement this level of emission cuts, we could stabilize the threat of climate change, he added.

Average global temperatures have warmed by close to 1 degree Celsius since the pre-industrial era. Much of the warming is due to human-produced emissions of greenhouse gases, predominantly carbon dioxide. This heat-trapping gas has increased from a preindustrial level of about 284 parts per million (ppm) in the atmosphere to more than 380 ppm today. With research showing that additional warming of about 1 degree C may be the threshold for dangerous climate change, the European Union has called for dramatic cuts in emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.

To examine the impact of such cuts on the world's climate, Washington and his colleagues ran a series of global studies with the NCAR-based Community Climate System Model (CCSM). They assumed that carbon dioxide levels could be held to 450 ppm at the end of this century. In contrast, emissions are now on track to reach about 750 ppm by 2100 if unchecked. The team's results showed that if carbon dioxide were held to 450 ppm, global temperatures would increase by 0¢6 degrees Celsius above current readings by the end of the century. In contrast, the study showed that temperatures would rise by almost four times that amount, to 2¢2 degrees Celsius above current readings, if emissions were allowed to continue on their present course. Holding carbon dioxide levels to 450 ppm would have other impacts, according to the climate modeling study.

Sea-level rise due to thermal expansion as water temperatures warmed would be 14 centimetres (about 5¢5 inches) instead of 22 centimetres (8¢7 inches). Also, Arctic ice in the summertime would shrink by about a quarter in volume and stabilize by 2100, as opposed to shrinking atleast three-quarters and continuing to melt, and Arctic warming would be reduced by almost half.

1. Why has the European Union called for dramatic cuts in carbon dioxide and greenhouse gas emissions ?
  (A) As global warming is not an issue of concern
  (B) As the temperatures may rise almost by an additional one degree and this may lead to severe climate change
  (C) As the NCAR has forced the European Union to announce the cuts
  (D) As all the nations have decided to cut emissions of carbon dioxide
  (E) None of these

2. What would not be one of the impacts of cutting greenhouse gas emissions ?
  (A) Temperatures will stop soaring
  (B) Ice in the Arctic sea would melt at a slower pace
  (C) The rise in sea level would be lesser
  (D) All of the above would be the impact
  (E) None of these

3. What would be the impact of holding the carbon dioxide level at 450 ppm at the end of this century ?
  1. Global temperatures would increase by 0¢6 degrees Celcius.
  2. Arctic warming would be reduced by half.
  3. Thermal expansion will stop completely.
  (A) Only 1
  (B) Only 1 and 2
  (C) Only 2 and 3
  (D) All the three 1, 2 and 3
  (E) None of these

4. What does the scientist Warren Washington mean when he says we could stabilize the threat of climate change ?
  (A) Climate change can be stopped completely
  (B) Climate change can be regularized
  (C) Climate change and its effects can be studied extensively
  (D) The ill-effects of the change in climate can be minimized
  (E) None of these

5. Why did Washington and his colleagues conduct a series of studies ?
  (A) Because they realized that the temperature increase was almost about 1 degree
  (B) So that they could stabilize the climate change
  (C) So that they could help the European Union in cutting the carbon dioxide emissions
  (D) Because they found out that the greenhouse gas emissions could be cut by 70%
  (E) None of these

6. What would be the impact of unchecked greenhouse gas and carbon dioxide emissions ?
  (A) The temperature would rise from the current temperature by 2¢2 degrees Celsius
  (B) The sea-level would rise by about 5¢5 inches
  (C) The arctic ice would stabilize by 2100
  (D) The arctic ice would reduce by one-fourth
  (E) None of these

7. What can be the most appropriate title of the above passage ?
  (A) A study of the rise in water level
  (B) A study of rise in temperatures
  (C) A study of the effects of greenhouse gas emissions
  (D) A study of the Arctic region
  (E) A study of change in seasons

8. Which of the following statements is true in context of the passage ?
  (A) At present the carbon dioxide emission is about 284 ppm
  (B) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 450 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked
  (C) The carbon dioxide emission was about 380 ppm during the pre-industrial era
  (D) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 750 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked
  (E) None of these

Directions(Q. 9 - 12) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. predominantly
  (A) clearly
  (B) aggressively
  (C) mainly
  (D) firstly
  (E) faintly

10. massive
  (A) tall
  (B) tough
  (C) total
  (D) little
  (E) severe

11. shrink
  (A) contract
  (B) physician
  (C) wither
  (D) shrivel
  (E) reduce

12. dramatic
  (A) unprecedented
  (B) thrilling
  (C) spectacular
  (D) effective
  (E) feeble

Directions(Q. 13 - 15) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

13. opposed
  (A) resistant
  (B) against
  (C) favouring
  (D) similar
  (E) agree

14. diminished
  (A) created
  (B) rose
  (C) increased
  (D) lessen
  (E) finished

15. significant
  (A) substantial
  (B) miniscule
  (C) incoherent
  (D) unimportant
  (E) irrelevant

Directions(Q. 16 - 20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and No Correction is Required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. Naturally, with everything gone so well for them, it was time for celebration.
  (A) go so well
  (B) going so well
  (C) gone as well
  (D) going as well
  (E) No Correction Required

17. The ban was imposed by the state's commercial taxes department last Friday after protests by a certain community, which had threat to burn cinema halls screening the controversial movie.
  (A) had threats of burning
  (B) had threated to burn
  (C) had threatened to burn
  (D) had threatened to burning
  (E) No Correction Required

18. Rakesh, an avid football player who captained his team in school and college, will inaugurate the match tomorrow in Pune.
  (A) will be inaugurate
  (B) is inauguration
  (C) will inaugurating
  (D) is inaugurate
  (E) No Correction Required

19. At a musical night organised for them, the artistic side of the doctors came as forward, as they sang beautifully and made the evening truly memorable.
  (A) come forward
  (B) come to the fore
  (C) came to the forth
  (D) came to the fore
  (E) No Correction Required

20. Although scared of heights, she gather all her courage and stood atop the 24-storey building to participate in the activities.
  (A) gathered all her courage
  (B) gathered all courageous
  (C) gather all courageous
  (D) is gathered all courage
  (E) No Correction Required

Directions(Q. 21 - 25) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

21. Along with a sharp rise in , a recession would eventually result in more men, women and children living in
  (A) crime, apathy
  (B) fatalities, poor
  (C) deaths, slums
  (D) unemployment, poverty
  (E) migrations streets

22. Behaving in a  and serious way, even in a  situation, makes people respect you.
  (A) calm, difficult
  (B) steady, angry
  (C) flamboyant, tricky
  (D) cool, astounding
  (E) silly, sound

23. An airplane with  passengers on board made an unscheduled  as the airport to which it was heading was covered with thick fog.
  (A) irritable, slip
  (B) faulty, stop
  (C) variety, halt
  (D) tons, wait
  (E) numerous, landing

24. The government has  to provide financial aid to the ones  by severe floods in the city.
  (A) desired, troubled
  (B) promised, havoc
  (C) failed, affected
  (D) wanted, struck
  (E) decided, ill

25. Deemed universities  huge fees, but have not been successful in providing  education to our students.
  (A) collect, maintaining
  (B) pay, better
  (C) ask, good
  (D) charge, quality
  (E) demand, quantitative

Directions(Q. 26 - 30) Rearrange the following six sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
1. In turn the buyer is called the franchisee.
2. These two parties are called the franchisor and franchisee.
3. This means that it gives permission for the buyer to use its name and sell its products.
4. He pays money to the franchisor, and agrees to obey the rules the franchisor makes.
5. A franchising agreement includes two parties.
6. The franchisor is the business house/entity which grants the franchisee license.

26. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
  (A) 2
  (B) 3
  (C) 4
  (D) 5
  (E) 6

27. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
  (A) 5
  (B) 6
  (C) 1
  (D) 4
  (E) 2

28. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
  (A) 2
  (B) 3
  (C) 4
  (D) 5
  (E) 6

29. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
  (A) 1
  (B) 2
  (C) 3
  (D) 4
  (E) 5

30. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
  (A) 2
  (B) 3
  (C) 4
  (D) 5
  (E) 6

Directions(Q. 31 - 40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

31. The angry at being (A) / left out of the bonanza (B) / is palpable among (C) / employees of the organization. (D) No error (E)

32. There are just too few trains (A) / for the ever-grow (B) / number of passengers (C) / in the city. (D) No error (E)

33. If all goes well, (A) / the examination scheduled for next month (B) / is all set to be completely free (C) / from annoying power cuts and disruptions. (D) No error (E)

34. His comments came after (A) / the research group said that its (B) / consumer confidence index were (C) / slumped to its lowest level. (D) No error (E)

35. The buzz at the party was (A) / that a famous (B) / filmstar and politician, would (C) / probable drop by for a while. (D) No error (E)

36. The President has denied (A) / that the economy is in recession (B) / or was go into one (C) / despite a spate of downcast reports. (D) No error (E)

37. Aggression in some teenage boys (A) / may be linkage to overly (B) / large glands in their brains, (C) / a new study has found. (D) No error (E)

38. The opposition disrupted proceedings (A) / in both Houses of Parliament (B) / for the second consecutive day (C) / above the plight of farmers in the country. (D) No error (E)

39. In response to the growing crisis (A) / the agency is urgently asking for (B) / more contributions, to make up for (C) / its sharp decline in purchasing power. (D) No error (E)

40. The tennis player easy through (A) / the opening set before her opponent, (B) / rallied to take the final two sets (C) / for the biggest victory of her young career. (D) No error (E)

Directions(Q. 41 - 50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

In economics, the term recession generally describes the reduction of a country's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) for atleast two quarters. A recession is (41) by rising unemployment, increase in government borrowing, (42) of share and stock prices and falling investment. All of these characteristics have effects on people. Some recessions have been anticipated by stock market declines. The real-estate market also usually (43) before a recession. However real-estate declines can last much longer than recessions. During an economic decline, high (44) stocks such as financial services, pharmaceuticals and tobacco (45) to hold up better. However when the economy starts to recover growth, stocks tend to recover faster. There is significant disagreement about how health care and utilities tend to (46).

In 2008, an economic recession was suggested by several important indicators of economic downturn. These (47) high oil prices, which led to (48) high food prices due to a dependence of food production on petroleum, as well as using food crop products such as ethanol and biodiesel as an (49) to petroleum and global inflation; a substantial credit crisis leading to the drastic bankruptcy of large and well (50) investment banks as well as commercial banks in various, diverse nations around the world; increased unemployment and signs of contemporaneous economic downturns in major economies of the world, a global recession.

41. (A) visualized
  (B) characterized
  (C) imagined
  (D) depict
  (E) shown

42. (A) decrease
  (B) abundance
  (C) increase
  (D) variance
  (E) more

43. (A) strengthens
  (B) volatile
  (C) weakens
  (D) initiates
  (E) awakens

44. (A) result
  (B) payment
  (C) maintained
  (D) yield
  (E) heavy

45. (A) yearn
  (B) made
  (C) are
  (D) want
  (E) tend

46. (A) increased
  (B) fight
  (C) distribute
  (D) recover
  (E) wait

47. (A) included
  (B) encompass
  (C) meant
  (D) show
  (E) numbered

48. (A) healthy
  (B) nutritious
  (C) fearful
  (D) dangerous
  (E) abnormally

49. (A) element
  (B) integral
  (C) alternative
  (D) variant
  (E) substitute

50. (A) created
  (B) established
  (C) wealthy
  (D) costly
  (E) stand





Answers :  
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (E) 4. (D) 5. (E) 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (A)
11. (E) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (E) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (B) 29. (E) 30. (A)
31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (E) 34. (C) 35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (E) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (C) 44. (D) 45. (E) 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (E) 49. (C) 50. (B)

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Andhra Bank Clerk Exam On 2008 : General Awareness Solved Question Paper and Answer paper

1. What is the population of India ?
(A) 98 crores   (B) More than 2 billion  (C) More than 1 billion
(D) Less than 96 crores  (E) 96 crores

2. Thermostat is an instrument used to—
(A) measure flow of current  (B) measure intensity of voltage
(C) regulate temperature  (D) regulate velocity of sound
(E) None of these

3. Wimbledon Trophy is associated with—
(A) Football (B) Cricket  (C) Hockey (D) Basketball  (E) Lawn Tennis

4. GNP stands for—
(A) Gross National Product  (B) Group Net Product  (C) Grand Nuclear Process
(D) Group Networking Process  (E) None of these

5. 'Acoustics' is the science of the study of—
(A) Light (B) Sound  (C) Electricity (D) Magnetism  (E) None of these

6. Noise pollution is measured in the unit called—
(A) micron  (B) nautical miles  (C) ohms  (D) ampere  (E) decibel

7. 'Heavy Water' is used in which of the following types of industries ?
(A) Sugar  (B) Nuclear Power  (C) Textile  (D) Coal  (E) None of these

8. Who amongst the following is the author of the book 'Indomitable Spirit'?
(A) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam  (B) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(C) Justice K. G. Balakrishna  (D) Mr. Natwar Singh  (E) None of these

9. Which of the following is not the name of popular IT/Software Company ?
(A) Wipro (B) Mastek  (C) Toyota (D) IBM  (E) Infosys

10. 'Yen' is the currency of—
(A) South Korea  (B) China  (C) Indonesia  (D) Malaysia  (E) None of these

11. Baichung Bhutia whose name was in news is a well known—
(A) Music Director of Indian films  (B) English author of Indian origin
(C) Journalist  (D) Politician  (E) Sports Personality

12. 'Richter Scale' is used to measure which of the following ?
(A) Intensity of Tsunami Waves  (B) Intensity of Earthquake
(C) Density of salt in Sea water  (D) Flow of electric current
(E) None of these

13. Which of the following best explains 'egovernance'?
(A) Improving the functioning of government
(B) Teaching government employees the basics of computing
(C) Delivery of public services through internet
(D) Framing of cyberlaws of chatting on internet
(E) Convergence of email and videoconferencing

14. CAS is associated with which of the following ?
(A) Legal System Reforms  (B) Piped gas line
(C) Cable T.V.  (D) Mobile phone regulation  (E) None of these

15. Tata Steel recently acquired the Corus, a steel giant situated in—
(A) South Africa  (B) Ukraine  (C) Australia  (D) Italy  (E) Britain

16. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the Organization/Agency working in the field of Space Research ?
(A) ISBN  (B) ISRO  (C) INTELSET  (D) INTACH  (E) None of these

17. 'Handshaking' in Networking parlance means—
(A) connecting computers to a hub
(B) distributed Networks
(C) having same operating system on different computers
(D) sending email
(E) None of these

18. VAT stands for—
(A) Value And Tax  (B) Value Added Tax  (C) Virtual Action Tasks
(D) Virtual Assessment Technique  (E) None of these

19. Alzheimer's disease is the ailment of which of the following organs /parts of the human body ?
(A) Kidney  (B) Heart  (C) Liver  (D) Stomach  (E) Brain

20. Global warming is a matter of concern amongst the nations these days. Which of the following countries is the largest emitter of greenhouse gases in the World ?
(A) U.S.A.  (B) China  (C) India  (D) Britain  (E) None of these

21. Which of the following books has been written by Bill Gates ?
(A) Microsoft Secrets  (B) The Road Ahead  (C) The Elephant Paradigm
(D) ecommerce  (E) None of these

22. Which of the following is the name of the social network service run by the Google on the internet ?
(A) Online Space  (B) Orkut  (C) NetSpace  (D) Wikipedia  (E) None of these

23. Which of the following states is a relatively new addition ?
(A) Goa  (B) Delhi  (C) Uttarakhand  (D) Himachal Pradesh  (E) Bihar

24. DOT stands for—
(A) Disc Operating Therapy  (B) Department of Telephones  (C) Directorate of Technology
(D) Damage on Time  (E) None of these

25. Which of the following States/ parts of India is completely land locked having no contact with sea ?
(A) Karnataka  (B) Orissa  (C) Maharashtra  (D) NorthEast  (E) None of these

26. TRAI regulates the functioning of which of the following services ?
(A) Telecom (B) Trade  (C) Port (D) Transport  (E) None of these

27. At present for the ATMs in India, the most commonly used network communication mode is—
(A) Very Small Aperture Terminal (VSAT)  (B) General Packet Radio Service (GPRS)
(C) Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA)  (D) Dialin Connection  (E) None of these

28. Which of the following is not a foreign bank operating in India ?
(A) DBS Bank Ltd.  (B) Sonali Bank  (C) J. P. Morgan Chase Bank
(D) Shinhan Bank  (E) All are Foreign Banks

29. Who is the author of the book 'Future Shock' ?
(A) Alvin Toffler  (B) Tom Peters  (C) Napoleon Hill
(D) Kenneth Blanchard  (E) None of these

30. Apex fares are—
(A) more than the normal fare
(B) less than the normal fare
(C) offered only to corporate clients
(D) applicable to late night flights only
(E) applicable to international flights only

31. Who amongst the following is the Director of the film 'Water' which was in news ?
(A) Vidhu Vinod Chopra  (B) Mrinal Sen  (C) Gulzar  (D) Mahesh Bhatt  (E) None of these

32. The 10th plan period is upto—
(A) 2007 (B) 2008  (C) 2009 (D) 2010  (E) None of these

33. OPEC is a group of countries which are—
(A) exporting oil  (B) producting cotton  (C) rich and developed
(D) developing and poor  (E) nuclear powers

34. Intel Company mainly produces—
(A) Hard disks  (B) VCDs  (C) Monitors  (D) Software  (E) None of these

35. Who amongst the following is the M.D./Chairman of one of the major Steel Companies ?
(A) Shri L. N. Mittal  (B) Shri K. K. Birla  (C) Shri Vijaypat Singhania
(D) Shri Mukesh Ambani  (E) Shri Anil Agarwal

36. Who is the President of Nasscom?
(A) Kiran Karnik  (B) Narayana Murthy  (C) Pramod Desai  (D) Devang Mehta  (E) None of these

37. Which of the following awards is not given for excellence in the field of literature ?
(A) Booker Prize  (B) Nobel Prize  (C) Pulitzer Price  (D) Arjun Award  (E) Bharatiya Gnanpith Award

38. 'Singur' which was in news is a place in—
(A) Orissa  (B) West Bengal  (C) Jharkhand  (D) Bihar  (E) Maharashtra

39. Who amongst the following is the author of the book series named as 'Harry Potter' ?
(A) J. K. Rowling  (B) Lindsay Lohan  (C) Julia Roberts  (D) Sandra Bullock  (E) None of these

40. Which of the following Satellites recently dedicated tonation helps Direct to Home Television Service in India ?
(A) Matsat  (B) Edusat  (C) Insat–4b  (D) Insat–IB  (E) None of these

41. Many a times we read some news items about the 'West Bank'. 'West Bank' is situated at the western side of the river—
(A) Mississippi  (B) Amazon  (C) Nile  (D) Jordan  (E) None of these

42. Which of the following phenomenon is considered responsible for 'Global Warming' ?
(A) Greenhouse Gas Effect  (B) Fox Fire  (C) Dry Farming  (D) Radioactivity  (E) None of these

43. Which of the following instruments is not issued by a bank ?
(A) Demand Draft  (B) Pay Order  (C) Debit Card  (D) Credit Card  (E) National Saving Certificate

44. Name of Jyoti Randhawa is associated with which of the following games ?
(A) Golf  (B) Badminton  (C) Hockey  (D) Chess  (E) None of these

45. Which of the following Software Companies recently launched its education portal 'Unlimited Potential'
in India ?
(A) Microsoft (B) Infosys  (C) Wipro (D) TCS  (E) None of these

46. Polly Umrigar who died was a well known—
(A) Cricketer  (B) Tennis Player  (C) Golfer  (D) Chess Player  (E) Hockey Player

47. In India Census is done after a gap of every—
(A) Five years  (B) Seven years  (C) Eight years  (D) Ten years  (E) Fifteen years

48. Prof. Muhammad Yunus the recipient of the Nobel Peace Prize 2006 is the exponent of which of the following concepts in the field of banking ?
(A) Core Banking  (B) Micro Credit  (C) Retail Banking
(D) Real Time Gross Settlement  (E) Internet Banking

49. Who amongst the following was India's official candidate for the post of UNO's Secretary General ?
(A) Mr. Shyam Saran  (B) Dr. C. Rangarajan  (C) Mr. Shashi Tharoor
(D) Mr. Vijay Nambiar  (E) None of these

50. Mr. Gordon Brown has taken over as the Prime Minister of—
(A) Italy  (B) Canada  (C) France  (D) South Africa  (E) Britain





Answers:
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (E) 4. (A) 5. (B)  6. (E) 7. (B)8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (E)
11. (E) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (E) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (E) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (E) 25. (D) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (E) 29. (A) 30. (B)
31. (E) 32. (A) 33. (A) 34. (E) 35. (A) 36. (A) 37. (D) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (C)
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (E) 44. (A) 45. (A) 46. (A) 47. (D) 48. (B) 49. (C) 50. (E)

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IBPS Clerk Exam On 11.12.2011 : Numerical Ability (Quantitative Aptitude) Solved Question Paper And Answer Paper

1-15. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

1. ⁵⁄₈  ×   2³⁄₅  ÷  ⁴⁄₉  = ?
(1) 2¹³⁄₂₇
(2) 1¹¹⁄₂₇
(3) 2²³⁄₃₂
(4) 3²¹⁄₃₂
(5) None of these

2. 10.8 × 5.5 × 8.4 = ?
(1) 458.69 (2) 489.96
(3) 498.96 (4) 485.69
(5) None of these

3. 45 ÷ 5 – 0.5 = ?
(1) 10 (2) 12
(3) 9.5 (4) 8.5
(5) None of these

4. 3.5 × (60 ÷ 2.5) = ?
(1) 62 (2) 96
(3) 74 (4) 88
(5) None of these

5. (4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4)5 × (4 × 4 × 4)8 ÷
(4)3 = (64)?
(1) 17 (2) 10
(3) 16 (4) 11
(5) None of these

6. 5 × ? = 8484 ÷ 4
(1) 444.2 (2) 424.2
(3) 442.2 (4) 422.2
(5) None of these

7. 7059 – 2350 + 1936 = × 50
(1) 123.6 (2) 132.3
(3) 132.6 (4) 123.9
(5) None of these

8. 16% of 550 ÷ ?% of 550 = 2.5
(1) 5.64 (2) 8.11
(3) 7.04 (4) 6.08
(5) None of these

9. 8648 – 7652 = ? × 40
(1) 24.7 (2) 28.9
(3) 27.4 (4) 25.9
(5) None of these

10. 22% of 364 - ? = 23
(1) 50.02 (2) 57.08
(3) 53.16 (4) 59.14
(5) None of these

11. 683-46 – 227.39 – 341.85 = ?
(1) 114.22 (2) 141.22
(3) 144.22 (4) 112.22
(5) None of these

12. 3²⁄₅  +   2³⁄₄  +  1¹⁄₂  = ?
(1) 8¹¹⁄₁₂
(2) 10¹²⁄₁₃
(3) 7¹¹⁄₁₂
(4) 9¹¹⁄₁₃
(5) None of these

13. √? - 5 = √2209
(1) √2704 (2) (52)2
(3) √52 (4) 52
(5) None of these

14. 14.5% of 608 = ?
(1) 88.16 (2) 86.18
(3) 81.68 (4) 86.88
(5) None of these

15. 840 ÷ 40 ÷ 0.5 = ?
(1) 8.5 (2) 21
(3) 10.5 (4) 42
(5) None of these

16-20. What approximate value should come in place in the question mark (?) in the following questions?

16. 750.0003 ÷ 19.999 = ?
(1) 49 (2) 18
(3) 22 (4) 45
(5) 38

17. 6888.009 – 487.999 – 87.989 = ?
(1) 6000 (2) 6570
(3) 6430 (4) 6200
(5) 6310

18. (9.5)2 = ?
(1) 75 (2) 90
(3) 125 (4) 110
(5) 80

19. 19.003 × 22.998 – 280.010 =?
(1) 220 (2) 110
(3) 160 (4) 90
(5) 200

20. 5454 ÷ 54 ÷ 5 = ?
(1) 15 (2) 25
(3) 30 (4) 20
(5) 10

21-25. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

21. 1000 2000 400 80 16 3.2 ?
(1) 0.38 (2) 0.45
(3) 0.64 (4) 0.54
(5) None of these

22. 2 10 42 170 ? 2730 10922
(1) 588 (2) 658
(3) 596 (4) 682
(5) None of these

23. 600 519 ? 406 370 345 329
(1) 435 (2) 455
(3) 425 (4) 445
(5) None of these

24. 5 ? 15 75 525 4725 51975
(1) 5 (2) 10
(3) 8 (4) 6
(5) None of these

25. 3 6 15 24 48 96 ?
(1) 192 (2) 182
(3) 186 (4) 198
(5) None of these

26. 3 women and 18 children together take 2 days to complete a piece of work. How many will 9 children alone take to complete the piece of work alone can complete the piece of work in 3 days?
(1) 9 (2) 7
(3) 5 (4) 6
(5) None of these

27. What will come in place of both question mark (?) in the following question?
(?)^1.8⁄32  =   ⁽¹⁶⁾⁄(?)^1.2
(1) 16 (2) 64
(3) 2 (4) 4
(5) 8

28. Out of the fractions  ⁵⁄7  ,  ⁴⁄9   ,  ⁶⁄11   , ²⁄5  and  ³⁄4 what is the difference between the largest and smallest fractions?
(1) ⁶⁄13
(2) ¹¹⁄18
(3) ⁷⁄18
(4) ¹¹⁄20
(5) None of these

29. The average weight of 21 boys was recorded as 64 kgs. If the weight of the teacher was added, the average increased by one kg. What was the teachers' weight?
(1) 86 kgs (2) 64 kgs
(3) 72 kgs (4) 98 kgs
(5) None of these

30. The perimeter of a square is twice the perimeter of a rectangle. If the perimeter of the square is 72 cms and the length of the rectangle is 12 cms, what is the difference between the breadth of the rectangle and the side of the square?
(1) 9 cms (2) 12 cms
(3) 18 cms (4) 3 cms
(5) None of these

31. Find the average of the following set of scores:
253, 124, 255, 534,836, 375, 101, 443, 760
(1) 427 (2) 413
(3) 441 (4) 490
(5) None of these

32. Raj sold and item for Rs. 6,384/- and incurred a loss of 30%. At what price should he have sold the item to have gained a profit of 30%?
(1) Rs. 14,565/-
(2) Rs. 11,856/-
(3) Rs. 13,544/-
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

33. What would be the simple interest accrued in 4 years on a principle of Rs. 187,440/- @ p.c.p.a.?
(1) Rs. 11,075/-
(2) Rs. 12,250/-
(3) Rs. 11,500/-
(4) Rs. 12,985/-
(5) None of these

34. A truck covers a distance of 640 kms in 10 hrs. A car covers the same distance in 8 hrs. What is the respective ratio between the speed of the truck and the car?
(1) 3 : 4 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 5 : 6 (4) 6 : 7
(5) None of these

35. The respective ratio between Sita's Riya's and Kunal's monthly income is 84 : 76 : 89. If Riya's annual income is Rs. 4,56,000/-, what is the sum of Sita's and annual income? (In some cases monthly income and in some cases annual income is used.)
(1) Rs. 11,95,000/-
(2) Rs. 9,83,5000/-
(3) Rs. 11,30,000/-
(4) Rs. 10,38,000/-
(5) None of these

36. The sum of 15% of a positive number and 20% of the same number is 126. What is one-third of that number?
(1) 360 (2) 1080
(3) 120 (4) 40
(5) None of these

37. Nandita scored 80 percent marks in five subjects together; viz; Hindi, Science, Maths, English and Sanskrit together, wherein the maximum marks of each subject were 105. How many marks did Nandita score in Science if she scored 89 marks in Hindi, 92 marks in Sanskrit, 98 marks in Maths and 81 marks in English?
(1) 60 (2) 75
(3) 65 (4) 70
(5) None of these

38. At present Anil is 1.5 times Purvi's age. Eight years hence, the respective ratio between Anil and Purvi's ages then will be 25 : 18. What is Purvi's present age?
(1) 50 years (2) 28 years
(3) 42 years (4) 36 years
(5) None of these

39. The average of four consecutive numbers A, B, C and D respectively is 49.5. What is the product of B & D?
(1) 2499 (2) 2352
(3) 2450 (4) 2550
(5) None of these

40. Faisal walks 325 meters every day. How many kilometers will he walk in four weeks?
(1) 6.2 (2) 9.1
(3) 8.6 (4) 7.8
(5) None of these

41. Niraj incurred a loss of 55 percent of selling an article for Rs. 9,549/-. What was the cost price of the article?
(1) Rs. 27,700/-
(2) Rs. 25,600/-
(3) Rs. 21,200/-
(4) Rs. 29,000/-
(5) None of these

42. What is the difference between the compound interest and simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 16,200/- at the end of three years @ 25%? (round off to two digits after decimal)
(1) Rs. 3213.44
(2) Rs. 3302.42
(3) Rs. 3495.28
(4) Rs. 3290.63
(5) None of these

43. A 280 meters long train crosses a platform thrice its length in 6 minutes 40 seconds. What is the speed of the train?
(1) 3.2 m/s (2) 1.4 m/s
(3) 2.8 m/s
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

44. The area of a rectangle is equal to the area of a circle with circumference  equal to 39.6 meters. What is the length of the rectangle it its breadth is 4.5 meters?
(1) 33.52 meters
(2) 21.63 meters
(3) 31.77 meters
(4) 27.72 meters
(5) None of these

45. In how many different ways can the letters of word 'VENTURE' be rranged?
(1) 840 (2) 5040
(3) 1260 (4) 2520
(5) None of these

46. In order to pass in exam a student is required to get 780 marks out of the aggregate marks. Sonu got 728 marks and was declared failed by 5 percent. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get in the examination?
(1) 1040 (2) 1100
(3) 1000
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

47. What would be the measure of the diagonal of a square whose area is equal to 882 sq. cms.?
(1) 38 cms. (2) 32 cms.
(3) 42 cms. (4) 48 cms.
(5) None of these

48. A man riding a bicycle, completes one lap of a circular field along its  circumference at the speed of 14.4 km/ hr in 1 minute 28 seconds. What is the area of the field?
(1) 7958 sq.mts
(2) 9856 sq.mts
(3) 8842 sq.mts
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

49. Harish, Dilip and Asha start running around a circular stadium and complete one round in 27 seconds,
9 seconds and 36 seconds respectively.In how much time will they meet again at the starting point?
(1) 1 min. 48 sec.
(2) 2 min. 36 sec.
(3) 2 min. 11 sec.
(4) 2 min. 25 sec.
(5) None of these

50. On children's day sweet were to be equally distributed amongst 300 children. But on that particular day 50 children remained absent; hence each child got one sweet extra. How many sweets were distributed?
(1) 1450
(2) 1700
(3) 1500
(4) 1650
(5) Cannot be determined

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